 Re: One is... and the other...
No, it's fine. As I've said before - grammar gives us ways to express meaning, and it's up to the speaker/writer to decide which meaning s/he wants to express. Here the writer has chosen to express both as "indefinite" - they've not yet been named, so s/he's not yet seeing them as "specific". Of course, as s/he has specified "two men", s/he could see the other as having been specified and choose to say "the other". In fact, if you read what i wrote above, that's what I was assuming would happen. But in fact, it's always a choice, and this writer chooses to see them as still indefinite. |